|
- pronunciation - Why is Sean pronounced Shawn? - English Language . . .
Sean (written "Seán" or "Séan" in Irish) is a Hibernization of the English name "John"; that is, it's a transliteration of "John" into a form which can be pronounced in Irish and written with the Irish alphabet (which nowadays is simply a version of the Roman alphabet)
- and me or me and. . . - English Language Usage Stack Exchange
Possible Duplicate: ldquo;Me and my wife rdquo; or ldquo;my wife and me rdquo; I keep seeing that it's just courtesy to put yourself last in a list of nouns eg "They went to the game with S
- What is the proper way to say possesive with person X and self?
Possible Duplicate: My wife and I #39;s seafood collaboration dinner I've never known what the proper way to use a sentence in which you and a specific person (as in you can't just say "our" be
- Why are sugar and sure pronounced with an SH?
I've noticed many Scottish and Irish Gaelic words to be spelled with an s, followed by a vowel, and pronounced like sh Think about the way Sean Connery speaks (not to mention how the Se in his name is pronounced)
- You can contact John, Jane or me (myself) for more information
The use of "myself" and similar reflexives for emphasis is normal English usage of the word This particular speaker wanted to place emphasis on the fact that they personally were one of the people you could contact for information Some dictionaries even list this definition first: (used as an intensive of me or I): I myself will challenge the winner - dictionary reference com It is commonly
- punctuation - Is the correct format Good morning, John or Good . . .
Which of these is in the correct format? Good morning, John Or Good morning John
- word order - Object pronoun: me and John, or John and me? - English . . .
It is formally correct to say 'with John and me' or 'with me and John', but the first one is the preferred style in print or in school (as Peter and John said) 'with me and John' sounds informal because of this style choice Also 'with John and I' is formally incorrect (prepositions in English take the accusative case), but there is a tendency nowadays for people to say it because, by
- Does hes mean both he is and he has? [closed]
Yes and no You do use "he's" for "he is" and "he has" You do use "he's got something" for "he has got something " You do not use "he's something" for "he has something " [Note that according to @Optimal Cynic this is allowed in some parts of the world] Therefore the first two sentences you proposed are correct: He's angry He's been angry But the third one is incorrect You cannot shorten
|
|
|